As before, I can only comment on things from the POV of an Ohio resident (divorce is state-specific in the US, as is marriage):Devil's Advocate wrote:One thing I have never understood : Why is the size of the divorce settlement made out to be a function of the higher-earner's income/wealth? (I say "higher-earner" here, rather than "ex-husband", to keep my comment gender-neutral.)
When one divorces is Ohio, only marital assets are divided between the spouses. With a few outlying exceptions, those would be any assets accumulated during the marriage which were NOT the result of inheritance, minus any debt the couple managed to accumulate. A home owned by one party that was used by both might be an exception, e.g. if you and I married, and I sold my home to move into yours and we both spent that money, then when we divorced the courts would likely say I owned part of yours because you spent part of mine. Which is logical.
For the most part, though: if you owned or owed it before you married, or if you inherited it from a family member, it stays with you after you divorce. The remaining assets/debts are the marital assets/debts, which would be divided.
Assuming there's no prenup, the division is based on a number of factors including each partner's current and projected income, contributions (financial and otherwise) during the marriage, who will have custody of the kids if any, and the length of the marriage. The separating spouses are generally free to craft the specifics of the divorce agreement themselves, and most do so. In my case, my ex and I didn't really have any assets (early 20s), but although I was getting custody of our son, I also took all of our debt because my income was higher. I volunteered to do that. It was my goal to end the marriage, not to impoverish my son's father. Again for the record: MOST separations do not devolve into bitter arguments about who gets what. Most people calmly come to an understanding, perhaps through attorneys but generally without courtroom intervention.
But, when they cannot, my impression from years of watching my husband craft other people's divorces is that, from the court's prospective, the goal during divorce in a marriage of any significant length is almost always to preserve both parties' standard of living for length of time that is sufficient for the lesser earner to get themselves off to a good start on their own two feet, at which point that person is on his/her own. So they will tend to get more assets, or alimony, or both, to meet that end. But that is the line of thinking: standard of living maintenance. "These guys were married ten years. Hubby will leave the marriage and still be in the middle class, but it would take this stay at home wife 2 years to finish her college degree and go find a job that would keep her in the middle class, assuming no debt. So we'll give her that situation as the divorce order: no debt, plus two years of support, plus half of any retirement savings accumulated by him during the marriage (since she forfeited that opportunity to raise the kids). She can't afford the house on her own so either he keeps the house and helps her get a new one or they sell it and split the proceeds. Their choice. They each get one of the cars, and then he gets whatever's left to compensate him for taking all the debt." That's what it might look like if the judge had to order it.
In a short marriage, by the way, this is way less of an issue. If I divorced after 6 months, no judge on earth would award me alimony. Alimony is about justice for spouses who gave up earnings opportunities of their own over time in order to help the family and/or help the high earner succeed.